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JiM
UKC Forum Member

Registered: Sep 2010
Location: New Paris, Indiana
Posts: 7076

Allen, question about your Advisor column.

Got my new Bloodlines today and was reading the question titled "Declaring A Dog Struck After The Fact".
You stated that in the situation where handler A declined to strike his dog on the first or second bark and then handler B's dog struck and handler A tried to strike his dog based on the fact that it had barked some 10 seconds earlier. Your column stated that is not allowed but you don't say how the judge should handle the situation when it occurs. Should the judge simply refuse handler A's strike call or should the judge accept the call and minus for striking the wrong dog?

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Old Post 11-02-2012 06:05 PM
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Allen / UKC
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Registered: Nov 2004
Location: Michigan
Posts: 9282

Yeah, should have covered the judge's end of the matter. The individual is not calling another handlers dog but rather his own dog that opened 10 seconds earlier. So it makes good sense to eliminate the idea of a penalty for calling the wrong dog.

1) Rule 1 clearly states that a dog must open before it can be declared struck. 2) We always say a judge should not accept a call on a dog that can't be heard opening.

With that said, it makes sense for the judge to NOT accept the call in the scenario described in CB.

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Old Post 11-02-2012 10:07 PM
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Richard Lambert
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Registered: Aug 2004
Location: Chattanooga, Tn
Posts: 22586

quote:
Originally posted by Allen / UKC
So it makes good sense to
With that said, it makes sense for the judge .



Oh my goodness, are you now saying that a judge should use good common sense????

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Old Post 11-02-2012 11:46 PM
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Rolin Blues
UKC Forum Member

Registered: Nov 2005
Location: Iowa
Posts: 2963

Allen

Thanks for clarifying it. I'd have accepted the call, minused it, then awarded dog B his 100. Always figured a handler would remember not to do it again, if they take a 'hit' for doing it wrong, the first time. Take care, Ron.

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Old Post 11-03-2012 02:50 AM
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